A couple planning their family are aware that through the past three generations on the husband's side a substantial number of stillbirths have occurred and several malformed babies were born who died early in childhood. The wife has studied genetics and urges her husband to visit a genetic counseling clinic, where a complete karyotype-banding analysis is performed. Although the tests show that he has a normal complement of 46 chromosomes, banding analysis reveals that one member of the chromosome 1 pair (in group A) contains an inversion covering 70 percent of its length. The homolog of chromosome 1 and all other chromosomes show the normal banding sequence. How would you explain the high incidence of past stillbirths?

Hello, everyone here. We have a question that says inversions are structural abnormalities of the chromosome that may lead to a production of abnormal gametes. It may lead to production of abnormal gametes. And this is because inversion carriers create aberrant gAN meets, which can result in partial duplication or deletion of the embryonic chromosome. It can lead to delivery of a baby with birth defects for the same reason, and it goes hand in hand with male infertility. So our answer here is D all of the above. Thank you for watching. Bye!